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classes:2009:fall:phys4101.001:q_a_1014 [2009/10/14 19:21] – x500_hakim011 | classes:2009:fall:phys4101.001:q_a_1014 [2009/10/21 11:06] (current) – x500_sohnx020 | ||
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\int f_n*f\, dx | \int f_n*f\, dx | ||
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- | ====Andromeda 10/14 7:00Pm==== | ||
- | I was going over mondays lecture and was wondering how did we get D=-A and C=-B? was it just the fact that we were looking for odd solution which is Antisymmetric? | ||
- | ====Andromeda 10/14 7:16Pm==== | ||
- | one more thin; we say that because the potential is symmetric we can reduce the problem and look at the continuity of psi and its derivative only at one point (a or -a). would this work if the potential was -V between 0 and 2a rather than -v between a and -a. (and 0 everywhere else) ? | ||
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====John Galt 10/14 6:21 AM==== | ====John Galt 10/14 6:21 AM==== | ||
Also in response to Physics4dummies' | Also in response to Physics4dummies' | ||
From what I understand, this problem is supposed to crudely represent an electron' | From what I understand, this problem is supposed to crudely represent an electron' | ||
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+ | ==== Aspirin 10/17/09 2:45 pm ==== | ||
+ | It is a probably fundamental question.. | ||
+ | When we got the general solution(< | ||
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+ | === Blackbox 10/21/09 10:45 am === | ||
+ | There are two different approaches about this problem. The first one is Odd case and the other is Even case. In the lecture, Professor considered of Odd case, which is asymmetric. The Shrodinger equation of the second region can be expressed like B`sin(kx). Therefore we will get B = -C since < | ||
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**Q&A for the previous lecture: [[Q_A_1012]]**\\ | **Q&A for the previous lecture: [[Q_A_1012]]**\\ | ||
**Q&A for the next lecture: [[Q_A_1016]]** | **Q&A for the next lecture: [[Q_A_1016]]** |