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Sept 23 (Wed)
Responsible party: joh04684, Aspirin
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Please try to include the following
main points understood, and expand them - what is your understanding of what the points were.
main points which are not clear. - describe what you have understood and what the remain questions surrounding the point(s).
How the main points fit with the big picture of QM. Or what is not clear about how today's points fit in in a big picture.
wonderful tricks which were used in the lecture.
Main Points
Setup for Discussion Problem
The particle is confined in its ground state in an infinite square well of width L.
Right at time t = 0, the infinite square well is expanded to width 2L.
The time-independent form of the particle at t = 0 before expansion is <math>\psi(x) = \sqrt{\frac{2}{L}}\sin{(\frac{\pi}{2}x)}</math>
Once the width of the well has expanded to 2L, the initial conditions for our function function becomes:
<math>\Psi(x, 0) = \sqrt{\frac{2}{L}}\sin{(\frac{\pi}{L}x)}</math> for 0 < x < L
<math>\Psi(x, 0) = 0</math> for L < x < 2L, x > 2L, and x < 0
We want to find <math>\Psi(x, t)</math>
The general form is <math>\psi(x)\phi(t)</math>, where <math>\psi_n(x) = A\sin{Bx}</math>, where A and B are some constants
Thus, our general form for the particle from 0 < x < L before widening the well is:
And after widening the well:
Energy
What then is our <math>E_n</math>?
The momentum of a deBroglie wavelength has the form:
<math>p = \frac{h}{\lambda}</math>
Wave number k is then <math>k = \frac{2\pi}{\lambda}</math>
This gives us a simpler form: <math>p = k\hbar</math>
In a general wave equation, we have the form <math>\sin{kx}</math>
So from our general <math>\Psi(x, t)</math> equation, we can say that <math>k_n = \frac{n\pi}{2L}</math>
Substituting back in, we now have <math>p_n = \frac{n\pi}{2L}\hbar</math>, giving us <math>E_n = \frac{p_n^2}{2m} = \frac{1}{2m}\frac{n^2\pi^2\hbar^2}{4L^2}</math>
Coefficients
We want to express <math>\psi</math> in terms of <math>\Psi (x, 0) = … </math>
<math>\Psi (x, t) = \Psi(x, 0)e^{\frac{-iEt}{\hbar}}</math>
However, <math>\Psi(x, 0)</math> no longer has unique energies, so we can't do it in this form.
We can write:
<math>c_m = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\psi_m(x)\Psi(x, 0) dx</math>
But everywhere but 0 < x < 2L is 0, so we can really integrate from 0 to L (<math>\Psi(x,0)</math> is already 0 between L and 2L)
More simply: <math>c_m = \int_{0}^{L}\psi_m(x)\Psi(x, 0) dx</math>
So which form of <math>\psi_n</math> are we talking about? The one where the width is L or 2L?
<math>\psi_m = \sqrt{\frac{1}{L}}\sin{(\frac{n\pi}{2L}x)}</math>
And: <math>\Psi(x,0) = \sqrt{\frac{2}{L}}\sin{(\frac{\pi}{L}x)}</math>
Substituting these into our equation, we get:
<math>c_m = \int_0^L\frac{1}{\sqrt{L}}\sin{(\frac{m\pi}{2L}x)}\sqrt{\frac{2}{L}}\sin{(\frac{\pi}{L}x)}dx</math>
<math>c_m = \frac{\sqrt{2}}{L}\int_0^L\sin{(\frac{m\pi}{2L}x)}\sin{(\frac{\pi}{L}x)}dx</math>
These coefficients are highly dependent upon how you define the integral, as we're dealing with orthogonality
Here, we are only integrating from 0 to L, not 0 to 2L
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